What according to you does Aristotle mean by 'pleasure proper to tragedy"?

I would like to see this moved to the Literature
Discussion Forum so we can hear other peoples' interpretations of Aristotle's
comment.

To me, Aristotle is adopting a somewhat cynical
attitude, indicating his belief or theory that it is not possible to experience pleasure
without experiencing tragedy. Further, I think he is saying that the greater the degree
of pleasure, the more serious the related tragedy must
be.

Personally, I don't think there has to be a direct
correlation between positives and negatives in our lives, so I don't agree
wholeheartedly with Aristotle's idea. On the other hand, our appreciation of the good
things in life is heightened when we contrast them with hard times, so there is some
basis for his viewpoint. Maybe the use of the words "pleasure" and "tragedy" adds extra
layers of meaning, but, in my humble opinion, there is some truth to what he
says.