by the definition of tan x , tan x =sin x/cos
x
therefore, tan^2 x= sin^2 x/cos^2
x
The definition of cot x states that cot x=cos x/sin
x
square both sides, you
have:
cot^2 x= cos^2 x/sin^2
x
substitue these values in the
function
tan^2 x+ cot^2 x= sin^2 x/cos^2 x + cos^2 x/sin^2
x
simplify into one
fraction
1.(sin^4 x +cos ^4 x)/(cos^2 x*sin^2
x)
using the binomial
theorem
2. sin^4 x + cos ^4 x= (sin^2 x +cos^2 x)^2 -
2*sin^2 x * cos^2 x
sin^2 x + cos^2 x=
1
function 2 becomes
sin^4 x+
cos^4 x= 1-2sin^2x*cos^2 x
3. 2sin^2 x*cos^2 x= 2(sin x*cos
x)^2
by the double-angle
formula
sin 2x= 2 sin x cos
x
sin2x/2=sin x cos x
function
number 3 becomes (sin 2x/2)^2
=sin^ 2
2x/4
put that back into function
3
2* sin ^2 2x/4=sin^2
2x/2
put that back into function
2
sin^4 x+ cos^4 x= 1-2sin^2x*cos^2
x
= 1- sin^2 2x/2
the
denominator could also use the double formula
so function
one becomes
(1-sin^2 2x/2 )/(sin^2
2x/4)
split the fraction
since
sin^2 2x/2=2*sin^2 2x/4
The two fractions
become
(1/(sin^2 2x/4))
-2
times four to the first fraction top and
bottom
(4/sin^2 2x) -2
only
when sin^2 2x=1 does this function equal to two
This
question has some problem
The closest proof
is:
tan^2 x +cot^2 x=2 when x= 1/4pi + k/2pi
where k is a constant, a whole number
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